(edited)
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Why using sales from the previous year (590) to predict profit and not the sales planning for the upcoming year (501.5)?
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Hello,
The reason is simply because the "Share of sales" data are referred to the sales of Y3.
If you eliminate a specificate part of the sales (e.g. products <5€) you can not assume that share of sales of products will be the same.
Does it make sense?
Luca
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