Hi,
i would like to understand why in the calculation of Mens market share after two years we use 0.95^2 instead of 1.25^2 and in Teenagers 1^2 instead of 1.1^2? Is this an error by any chance?
thank you
(edited)
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Hi,
Could you kindly link the case?
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Hello!
Can you re-post with the link to the case?
Cheers,
Clara
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Thank you Ian, it's about Italian Beauty Company case https://www.preplounge.com/en/management-consulting-cases/interviewer-led-mckinsey-style/intermediate/italian-beauty-company-31