We calculate the company's total revenue as 1B euros. If the sample product has a purchase price of 30 euros out of a sale price of 60 euros, does that not mean that overall, 500M euros of the company's revenue goes towards purchasing the products for sale? And if so, then the speculated overhead costs of 920M would surpass the remaining 500M of revenue that needs to cover overheads and profit.
In general, do market charts like Exhibit 1 exclude purchase price? This would be odd, given that different companies have different purchase prices, and that is part of their internal operations
