For the calculation of the market size using the golf course approach, the information states that 2 balls are lost per game. However the solution seems to focus on the balls lost per player. Can anyone please explain the discrepancy?
Two balls per game or per player?
Overview of answers
I see your point.
If during 1 game 2 balls are lost and there are 2 players in the game it means 1 ball lost/player.
I am also wondering why it is not calculated in this way.
I don't understand why you think that there is a descrepancy.
THe logical sequence is:
- Balls lost per game
- Balls lost per playes
- Total number of lost balls
WHy the 2 approaches should be mutually exclusive in your opinion?
So, here you're trying to figure out how many balls are purchased each year. One can assume that the # of balls purchased is the number of balls lost (replenishment rate).
Now let's work backwards:
I know the population of players in Portugal, but now I need to know how many balls this whole population needs. If I get the # of balls lost each year, on average, per player, then I can multiply this by the whole population of players get to total demand.
The # of balls lost each year per player can be found by figuring out # of games played per year times # of balls lost each game.