In the OnlineGo case (an ISP entering North America), the following is presented:
OnlineGo plans to acquire 10 million subscribers by charging $20/month.
A new competitor enters charging $10/month.
It is calculated that if OnlineGo lowers its price to $10 while keeping the same 10M subscribers, it would incur losses.
From this, it is concluded that "the elasticity of demand is highly elastic."
My question: If we lower the price by 50% (from $20 to $10) and there is no increase in the number of subscribers (they remain at 10M), doesn’t that suggest that demand is inelastic in that range? Because elastic demand would imply that the quantity demanded increases significantly when the price drops.
Am I misinterpreting an assumption? Or does the case assume that at $20 they wouldn’t reach 10M, but doesn’t make this explicit?
I appreciate your insights.